This is my first post here so I am not quite sure where to post this question. I have been seeing a doctor in the hopes of figuring out why I am having leg pain/swelling ect. This doctor while he has treated my pain always had made me feel like a terrible person as he handed me my pain medication (hydrocodone). I had finally had enough of his treatment and decided to switch to another GP in the hopes of 1. not being treated poorly and 2. that this new doctor would be dedicated to finding out why i am having problems.

Here is where the question lies. This second doctor is worse than the first. He accused me today of being a drug seeker. Mind you I have NOT asked him to refill my pain meds as I have some from the old doctor and don't need any yet. I did ask him to fill a regular script as it is a maintainence med to which he refused. When I went to see him today as to why he said I was a drug seeker and "had a perscription drug problem" NEVER have I ever exhibited any type of such behavior.

This second doctor said I should go back to the first doc and that he would call him to refer me back. I told doctor #2 to NOT call doctor #1 as I would take care of that. He said he wasn't going to call but I am worried that he will and that doctor #1 will be upset and dump me as well. Mind you I live in a small town so word gets around fast. I am wondering if Doctor #2 can do this without breaking patient/doctor confidentiality. My husband heard me specifically say for doctor #2 NOT to call. So again I ask can this doctor do this?? Any advice is greatly appreciated.